ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider is providing education to a client about atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities. Monitoring for muscle pain is essential as it can be a sign of a serious side effect called rhabdomyolysis. While liver function tests are necessary before starting atorvastatin, checking them continuously may not be required. Avoiding sun exposure and reporting gastrointestinal symptoms are not directly associated with atorvastatin use.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client's vaccination history. Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine, it is essential to verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. This helps in preventing unnecessary vaccinations and ensures the appropriate timing and dosage. Option A, the client's allergy to eggs, is not directly related to administering the hepatitis B vaccine. Option C, the client's weight, and option D, the client's blood pressure, are not factors that need to be specifically verified before administering the hepatitis B vaccine.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When administering sertraline, assessing blood pressure is crucial as this medication can potentially affect blood pressure levels. Monitoring blood pressure before giving sertraline helps ensure patient safety and allows for appropriate interventions if any significant changes are noted. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and mood changes are important assessments but are not typically the first priority when administering sertraline. While heart rate and respiratory rate can also be affected by sertraline, blood pressure assessment is a higher priority due to the medication's known effects on blood pressure regulation.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be assessed first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first before administering nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting. Assessing blood pressure before administration helps determine if the patient's blood pressure is within the acceptable range for nitroglycerin administration. Heart rate, pain level, and respiratory rate are also important assessments, but blood pressure should take precedence due to the vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following clients should the nurse refer to a social worker?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because social workers are involved in arranging care services like placement in assisted living facilities. This client's need for placement in an assisted living facility requires the expertise and assistance of a social worker. Choices A, C, and D do not necessarily require the intervention of a social worker. Choice A can be addressed by a nurse or healthcare provider, choice C can be managed by hospital staff or educators, and choice D may involve a nutritionist or community outreach programs.