ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet. For cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is essential to prevent exacerbation of symptoms. High-fat diets can trigger gallbladder attacks, while low-fat and low-cholesterol diets help reduce the workload on the gallbladder. High-fiber (choice A) may be too harsh on the digestive system. Low-fiber, high-protein (choice B) and high-protein, high-fat (choice D) diets can exacerbate symptoms due to the high-fat content.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle rigidity. This finding could be indicative of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. NMS is characterized by severe muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Prompt medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Weight gain is a common side effect of risperidone and is typically not considered an urgent issue. B: Dry mouth is a common side effect of risperidone and can be managed with oral hygiene measures. D: Drowsiness is a common side effect of risperidone and may improve over time or with dosage adjustments. It is not typically an immediate concern unless severe or accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red man syndrome. This is a severe adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. It can progress rapidly to anaphylaxis. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within normal range, mild itching at the IV site is common and can be managed topically, and nausea and vomiting are common side effects of vancomycin but are not life-threatening compared to Red man syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can exacerbate this risk. It is important for the client to avoid alcohol to prevent potential harm to the liver. B: Taking the medication with a full meal is not a necessary instruction for methotrexate. It is typically recommended to take methotrexate on an empty stomach. C: Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is not directly related to methotrexate therapy. It is important for overall health but not specifically for this medication. D: Avoiding exposure to sunlight is not a common instruction for methotrexate. While some medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight, this is not a typical concern with methotrexate.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Stopping medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a potential relapse of depressive symptoms. 2. The client should be educated on the importance of completing the full course of treatment. 3. This statement indicates a lack of understanding regarding the need for continued medication adherence. 4. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and demonstrate good understanding of antidepressant treatment.