A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

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Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.

Question 2 of 9

A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. At 6 weeks of gestation, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency from increased blood flow to kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and vessel fragility. Therefore, all options are relevant and should be included in the education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy.

Question 3 of 9

When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester. This amount of weight gain in the first trimester is higher than the recommended range of 1.1-4.5 lbs. It could indicate potential issues such as gestational diabetes or preeclampsia. Choices A, C, and D fall within or closer to the expected weight gain ranges for each trimester, making them less concerning. Reporting excessive weight gain early allows for timely intervention and monitoring.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.

Question 5 of 9

During a vaginal exam on a client in labor who reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back, a nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. Which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention for the nurse to perform to relieve the client's discomfort?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer, B: Counter-pressure, is the best nonpharmacological intervention for a client with a posterior fetal head position causing lower back pain. Counter-pressure applied to the sacrum can help alleviate discomfort by reducing pressure on the lower back and providing support during contractions. This technique can aid in rotating the baby's head to a more optimal position for delivery. Choice A: Back rub, may offer some comfort but may not specifically address the issue of lower back pain caused by the fetal position. Choice C: Playing music, and Choice D: Foot massage, are unlikely to provide direct relief for the client's specific discomfort related to the baby's posterior position.

Question 6 of 9

A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling. This suggestion helps foster acceptance and bonding between the siblings by creating a positive association and sense of reciprocity. It allows the 7-year-old to feel included and appreciated in the new family dynamic. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath may not be safe or appropriate, and could potentially lead to accidents or discomfort for the newborn. B: Forcing physical affection like kissing may not be well-received by the sibling and could create negative feelings towards the newborn. D: Switching the sibling's room with the nursery could disrupt the sibling's sense of stability and security, potentially causing confusion and anxiety.

Question 8 of 9

A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because continuing to take insulin during nausea and vomiting is crucial for maintaining blood glucose control in clients with diabetes. Nausea and vomiting can lead to decreased food intake, risking hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because fasting blood glucose levels should ideally be maintained between 60-90 mg/dL in pregnant clients with diabetes for optimal outcomes, not 100-120 mg/dL. Choice B is incorrect because engaging in moderate exercise when blood glucose is high (250 or higher) can exacerbate hyperglycemia rather than help in lowering blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding exercise when blood glucose exceeds 250 is not recommended. Exercise can help lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.

Question 9 of 9

When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.

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