A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

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Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.

Question 2 of 9

A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily. Headaches during pregnancy can be common due to hormonal changes and increased blood volume. The nurse should recommend non-pharmacological interventions like relaxation techniques to manage headaches safely without medication. Conscious relaxation techniques can help reduce stress and tension, potentially alleviating headaches. Ibuprofen (choice A) is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Ginseng tea (choice C) is not safe for pregnant women as it may lead to complications. Soaking in a hot bath (choice D) with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not advised during pregnancy as it may harm the baby.

Question 3 of 9

While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Call for assistance. This is the first action the nurse should take in this emergency situation. Calling for help ensures that additional support and resources are available to manage the situation effectively. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (A) is not recommended as it can worsen the prolapsed cord. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (B) can lead to further complications. Administering oxygen (C) may be necessary but is not the priority when a prolapsed cord is present.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex. Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

Question 5 of 9

A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Checking the strings of the IUD after periods ensures that the device is in place. This indicates understanding of IUD maintenance. Choice A is incorrect because IUDs usually last 3-10 years and do not need annual replacement. Choice B is incorrect because nulliparous women can also use IUDs. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns quickly after IUD removal, not necessarily after 5 months.

Question 6 of 9

A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.

Question 7 of 9

When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates an understanding of the importance of calcium intake for breastfeeding mothers. Calcium is essential for both the mother's health and the baby's bone development. Continuing calcium supplements shows a commitment to meeting nutritional needs. Incorrect choices: A: Having coffee is fine, but it's not directly related to postpartum nutrition needs. B: Folic acid is important for pregnancy but not specifically for increasing milk supply. C: While additional calories are needed during breastfeeding, the specific amount varies and is not always 330 calories per day.

Question 8 of 9

A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling. This suggestion helps foster acceptance and bonding between the siblings by creating a positive association and sense of reciprocity. It allows the 7-year-old to feel included and appreciated in the new family dynamic. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath may not be safe or appropriate, and could potentially lead to accidents or discomfort for the newborn. B: Forcing physical affection like kissing may not be well-received by the sibling and could create negative feelings towards the newborn. D: Switching the sibling's room with the nursery could disrupt the sibling's sense of stability and security, potentially causing confusion and anxiety.

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