ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 2 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.
Question 3 of 9
A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution. This is crucial as epidural anesthesia can cause hypotension, which can lead to maternal and fetal complications. Monitoring blood pressure every 5 minutes allows for early detection and intervention. A: Positioning the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution can lead to hypotension due to decreased venous return, so this is incorrect. B: Administering dextrose 5% in water is not a standard practice after epidural anesthesia and does not address the risk of hypotension, so this is incorrect. D: Ensuring the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the procedure is important for general anesthesia but not specifically for epidural anesthesia, so this is incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the FHR continuously. This is essential in preeclampsia as magnesium sulfate can affect fetal heart rate (FHR). Continuous monitoring helps detect any changes promptly. A: Monitoring blood pressure is important but not as critical as FHR monitoring in this scenario. B: Restricting total hourly intake to 200 mL is not necessary for magnesium sulfate administration. D: Administering protamine sulfate is incorrect as it is used for heparin toxicity, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 7 of 9
A caregiver is learning about newborn safety. Which of the following statements by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because dressing the baby in flame-retardant clothing is a safety measure to reduce the risk of burns. Flame-retardant clothing can help protect the baby in case of accidental exposure to fire or heat sources. Choice B is incorrect because putting a bib on the baby at night can pose a suffocation hazard. Choice C is incorrect because warming formula in the microwave can create hot spots that may burn the baby's mouth. Choice D is incorrect because covering the crib mattress with plastic can increase the risk of suffocation and overheating for the baby.
Question 8 of 9
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention. A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention. B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever. C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.