ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the arms due to the pressure build-up before the narrowing and decreased blood pressure in the legs due to reduced blood flow beyond the narrowing. This pressure difference is a classic clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta. B is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in the arms is not typical. C is incorrect as increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs does not reflect the characteristic pressure difference caused by the aortic narrowing. D is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not consistent with the presentation of coarctation of the aorta.
Question 2 of 5
A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surge of energy. This is a sign that precedes labor as the body may experience a burst of energy known as the "nesting instinct." This surge can occur as the body prepares for the upcoming physical demands of labor. A: Decreased vaginal discharge is not a sign of impending labor; in fact, there may be an increase in vaginal discharge as the body prepares for childbirth. C: Urinary retention is not a sign of impending labor and can be a symptom of other issues such as a urinary tract infection. D: Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of labor approaching; weight fluctuations during pregnancy are common and can vary based on various factors.
Question 3 of 5
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition. Summary: - Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia. - Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus. - Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.
Question 5 of 5
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, abruptio placentae. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, common at 36 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Placenta previa (A) presents painless bleeding, prolapsed cord (B) involves cord presenting before the fetus, and incompetent cervix (C) leads to painless dilation of the cervix. Thus, abruptio placentae is the most likely complication in this scenario.