ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals with burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, promote acceptance of altered appearance, and help the client cope with the changes. Choice A is incorrect because it may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice B is incorrect as suggesting a timeline for cosmetic surgery may not be appropriate without considering the client's physical and emotional readiness. Choice C is incorrect as reconstructive surgery may not completely restore the client's previous appearance and may set unrealistic expectations.
Question 3 of 5
A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.