ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 2 of 9
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex. Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse. Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive. - Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns. - Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
Question 3 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse." At 10 weeks of gestation, the uterus begins to enlarge, potentially causing discomfort in the missionary position. This statement shows an understanding of the physical changes in pregnancy. A is incorrect because the recommended weight gain for a client with normal BMI is 25-35 pounds during pregnancy, not less than 15-20 pounds. C is incorrect as breast size typically increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, regardless of prior breast reduction surgery. D is incorrect because stretch marks are common during pregnancy, regardless of skin complexion.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.
Question 5 of 9
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.
Question 6 of 9
When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear to avoid causing unnecessary discomfort or injury. Step 1: Gently compress the bulb syringe. Step 2: Insert the tip into the nostril, not the mouth. Step 3: Release the bulb to suction out the secretions. Step 4: Repeat in the other nostril. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect because you should insert the syringe tip before compressing the bulb. B is incorrect as you should suction the mouth before the nose. C is incorrect as you should not insert the syringe tip in the center of the mouth.
Question 7 of 9
A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dark green leafy vegetables. Dark green leafy vegetables like kale, spinach, and broccoli are excellent sources of calcium. They provide a good alternative to dairy for those who don't like milk. These vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health, especially during pregnancy. They also offer other nutrients like vitamin K and magnesium that support calcium absorption. Summary: B: Deep red or orange vegetables - While these vegetables are nutritious, they are not significant sources of calcium. C: White bread and rice - These foods do not provide a significant amount of calcium. D: Meat, poultry, and fish - While these foods are rich in protein and other nutrients, they are not primary sources of calcium.
Question 8 of 9
When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates an understanding of the importance of calcium intake for breastfeeding mothers. Calcium is essential for both the mother's health and the baby's bone development. Continuing calcium supplements shows a commitment to meeting nutritional needs. Incorrect choices: A: Having coffee is fine, but it's not directly related to postpartum nutrition needs. B: Folic acid is important for pregnancy but not specifically for increasing milk supply. C: While additional calories are needed during breastfeeding, the specific amount varies and is not always 330 calories per day.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.