ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.
Question 2 of 9
A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.
Question 3 of 9
When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed. This recommendation helps alleviate morning sickness by providing a small, easily digestible snack to settle the stomach before getting up. It helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevent an empty stomach exacerbating nausea. Explanation for why B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Awakening during the night to eat a snack can disrupt sleep patterns and is not necessary for managing morning sickness. C: Skipping breakfast and waiting until lunch may lead to prolonged nausea and low blood sugar levels, worsening symptoms. D: Eating a large evening meal can increase the likelihood of acid reflux and indigestion, making morning sickness worse.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. Given the client's symptoms of right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, missed menstrual cycle, and presence of an intrauterine device, these are classic signs of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Missed abortion would typically present with cramping, bleeding, and passage of tissue. C: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. D: Hydatidiform mole would typically present with vaginal bleeding and uterine enlargement, but not the sharp abdominal pain described.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate is contraindicated in cases of fetal distress, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, and vaginal bleeding. Fetal distress can be worsened by magnesium sulfate, and it can lead to respiratory depression in the newborn. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm indicates advanced labor, where the risk of uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage is increased with magnesium sulfate use. Vaginal bleeding may be a sign of placental abruption or other complications, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. Therefore, all three options are contraindications for the use of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange juice. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by converting non-heme iron to a more absorbable form. The acidity in orange juice aids in this process. Ice water (choice A) does not contain any nutrients to enhance iron absorption. Low-fat or whole milk (choice B) contains calcium, which can inhibit iron absorption. Tea or coffee (choice C) contains tannins that can also inhibit iron absorption. In summary, orange juice is the best choice due to its vitamin C content that helps improve iron absorption.
Question 8 of 9
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. At 6 weeks of gestation, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency from increased blood flow to kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and vessel fragility. Therefore, all options are relevant and should be included in the education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy.