A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse." At 10 weeks of gestation, the uterus begins to enlarge, potentially causing discomfort in the missionary position. This statement shows an understanding of the physical changes in pregnancy. A is incorrect because the recommended weight gain for a client with normal BMI is 25-35 pounds during pregnancy, not less than 15-20 pounds. C is incorrect as breast size typically increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, regardless of prior breast reduction surgery. D is incorrect because stretch marks are common during pregnancy, regardless of skin complexion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pregestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Pregestational diabetes is a known risk factor for developing preeclampsia due to the underlying vascular and inflammatory changes associated with diabetes. In contrast, choices A, B, and C are not typically considered risk factors for preeclampsia. A singleton pregnancy (choice A) is a normal occurrence and not a risk factor for preeclampsia. A BMI of 20 (choice B) falls within the healthy weight range and is not a known risk factor for preeclampsia. Maternal age of 32 years (choice C) is also not considered a significant risk factor for preeclampsia in the absence of other factors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Late decelerations indicate fetal distress, suggesting compromised oxygenation. Starting oxytocin can further stress the fetus, worsening decelerations. Report to prevent harm. B is incorrect as moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. C is incorrect as cessation of uterine dilation may indicate uterine hyperstimulation, not fetal distress. D is incorrect as prolonged active labor phase alone doesn't necessarily contraindicate oxytocin, but it may require monitoring.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.