ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.
Question 2 of 9
During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure. A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client. B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter. D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
Question 3 of 9
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase. Summary: A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm. C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm. D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 4 of 9
While caring for a newborn undergoing phototherapy to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light. Rationale: 1. Phototherapy light can cause eye damage, so covering the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask protects them. 2. Newborns' eyes are more sensitive to light, making eye protection crucial during phototherapy. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Keeping the newborn in a shirt won't protect the eyes from phototherapy light. C: Applying lotion can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and may cause skin irritation. D: Turning and repositioning the newborn is important for comfort, but eye protection is the priority during phototherapy.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all options are relevant when teaching a client about medroxyprogesterone. A, weight fluctuations can occur due to hormonal changes. B, irregular vaginal spotting is a common side effect of medroxyprogesterone. C, increasing calcium intake is important to prevent bone density loss associated with long-term medroxyprogesterone use. Therefore, all options are essential for comprehensive client education. Other choices are incorrect because excluding any of these key points could lead to incomplete information and potential misunderstandings regarding the medication's effects and management.
Question 6 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 8 of 9
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. This test is used to assess fetal lung maturity by determining the ratio of two substances present in amniotic fluid. An L/S ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates mature fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. A: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to screen for neural tube defects, not fetal lung maturity. C: Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage. D: Indirect Coombs' test is used to detect antibodies in maternal blood that may attack fetal red blood cells, not assess fetal lung maturity. In summary, the L/S ratio test is the most appropriate choice to assess fetal lung maturity during preterm labor, as it directly correlates with the development of the fetal lungs.
Question 9 of 9
When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear to avoid causing unnecessary discomfort or injury. Step 1: Gently compress the bulb syringe. Step 2: Insert the tip into the nostril, not the mouth. Step 3: Release the bulb to suction out the secretions. Step 4: Repeat in the other nostril. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect because you should insert the syringe tip before compressing the bulb. B is incorrect as you should suction the mouth before the nose. C is incorrect as you should not insert the syringe tip in the center of the mouth.