A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

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Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

Question 2 of 5

When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

Question 3 of 5

While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

Question 5 of 5

Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is choice C, the State Board of Nursing for each state, because these boards establish the legal scope of practice for nurse practitioners, including prescriptive authority, which varies by state due to differing regulations. Choice A, the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, is incorrect as it provides guidelines and licensure standards but doesn't directly regulate state-specific authority. Choice B, the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration, is wrong because it oversees controlled substances, not general prescribing rights. Choice D, the State Board of Pharmacy, is also incorrect since it governs pharmacists, not NPs, and has no jurisdiction over their prescriptive authority.

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