A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When caring for clients with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority as it can lead to distress, safety risks, and potential harm to the client or others. Restlessness and agitation are common behavioral symptoms of dementia and can indicate unmet needs, discomfort, or confusion. Managing these symptoms promptly can help improve the client's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls, injuries, or escalation of challenging behaviors. While other issues like mild confusion, incontinence, and wandering are also important to address, managing restlessness and agitation takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the client's well-being and safety.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Administering antibiotics and providing oxygen therapy are essential in managing pneumonia. Antibiotics help treat the infection caused by bacteria, while oxygen therapy improves lung function. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators may not be the primary treatment for pneumonia. Choice C is not the priority in pneumonia management, although fluids and rest are important for recovery. Choice D is also not a primary intervention in pneumonia management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.