ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.
Question 5 of 5
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.