ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
Question 3 of 9
A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the client to turn onto her side. This intervention is essential to improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, thus helping to increase blood pressure and prevent hypotension. Turning the client onto her side can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, allowing for better circulation. A: Preparing for a cesarean birth is not indicated based solely on the client's blood pressure reading. B: Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen hypotension as it can further decrease blood flow to the placenta. C: Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery is not necessary solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.
Question 4 of 9
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 5 of 9
A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
Question 6 of 9
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin. Decelerations starting at the peak of contractions indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by hyperstimulation from oxytocin. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help alleviate this issue and improve fetal oxygenation. Choice A would not address the underlying cause of the decelerations. Choice C would worsen the hyperstimulation. Choice D is not directly related to the fetal heart rate decelerations.
Question 7 of 9
A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation. Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.
Question 8 of 9
A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella immunization should be given shortly after giving birth to prevent any potential harm to the fetus during pregnancy. Immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated to avoid any risk of harm to the developing baby. Option B is incorrect as immunization in the third trimester can still pose a risk to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as immediate immunization during pregnancy is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current fetus.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation actually occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not after conception. This is a critical distinction as conception refers to the union of sperm and egg to form a zygote, while fertilization specifically refers to the fusion of the genetic material. Therefore, the statement by the newly licensed nurse is inaccurate and requires intervention. A: Fertilization typically occurs in the outer third of the fallopian tube, making this statement correct. C: Sperm can indeed remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days, indicating this statement is accurate. D: Bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation, making this statement correct. In summary, choice B is incorrect because implantation occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not conception. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements related to conception and fertilization.