A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications. Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fundus firm to palpation. Methylergonovine is a medication used to promote uterine contraction, which helps the uterus return to its pre-pregnancy size and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. When the fundus is firm to palpation, it indicates that the uterus is contracting effectively, which is the desired outcome of giving methylergonovine. A: Increase in blood pressure is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this context. C: Increase in lochia may be a sign of uterine involution but does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. D: Reporting of absent breast pain is not a specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness related to uterine contraction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation. Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cullen's sign. Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis, indicating blood in the peritoneum due to internal bleeding from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign (choice A) is related to facial muscle spasm due to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign (choice C) is bluish discoloration of the cervix indicating pregnancy. Goodell's sign (choice D) is softening of the cervix in early pregnancy. These signs are not indicative of blood in the peritoneum like Cullen's sign is.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.