ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory distress. Hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn can lead to respiratory distress due to inadequate energy supply to respiratory muscles. Hypertonia (choice A) may indicate other issues such as hypocalcemia. Increased feeding (choice B) is not a typical clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia, as the newborn may have poor feeding due to low energy levels. Hyperthermia (choice C) is not directly related to hypoglycemia but may occur in response to infection or other causes. Thus, respiratory distress is the most indicative of hypoglycemia in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices are risk factors for preterm labor. A: Urinary tract infection can lead to inflammation and contractions. B: Multifetal pregnancy puts more stress on the uterus, increasing the risk. C: Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor due to decreased amniotic fluid levels. In summary, all the choices contribute to the increased likelihood of preterm labor.
Question 5 of 9
A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that can cause hypertension as an adverse effect due to its vasoconstrictive properties. This can lead to increased blood pressure, which should be monitored closely. Hypothermia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of carboprost. Constipation (choice C) and muscle weakness (choice D) are also not typically associated with carboprost use. Monitoring blood pressure and signs of hypertension is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of carboprost.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like information about pregnancy testing. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using the first morning urine specimen for a home pregnancy test is recommended because it is more concentrated, increasing the accuracy of the test. This is due to the higher levels of the pregnancy hormone hCG present in the urine after a night of not urinating. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy testing can usually be done as early as 1-2 weeks after conception, not necessarily 4 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as being on medications does not typically affect the accuracy of a pregnancy test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for fasting before a pregnancy test; it does not impact the test results.
Question 8 of 9
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing is to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations are typically benign and are associated with head compression during contractions, which is a normal response to labor. There is no need to discontinue the oxytocin infusion as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Requesting the provider to assess the client may not be necessary at this point unless other concerning signs are present. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid is not indicated as it would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the best course of action is to continue monitoring the client for any changes in the FHR pattern.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day. This exercise helps strengthen the core muscles, which can alleviate backache during pregnancy. It also promotes flexibility in the lower back and pelvis. Avoiding any lifting (A) is not a practical measure as some lifting may be necessary in daily activities. Performing Kegel exercises (B) strengthens pelvic floor muscles but does not directly address backache. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods (D) can help reduce backache but is not as effective as specific exercises targeting the back muscles like the pelvic rock exercise.