ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.
Question 2 of 9
A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for a __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because stopping high-dose opioids after prolonged use risks a late ADR, like withdrawal symptoms, occurring after treatment ends. Choice A is incorrect as ‘rapid' isn't a standard ADR type. Choice B is wrong because first-dose reactions occur at initiation, not cessation. Choice D is incorrect since delayed implies long-term effects like cancer, not immediate post-use issues.
Question 3 of 9
Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because educating patients about expected adverse reactions prepares them to manage side effects and seek help if needed, enhancing safety and adherence. Choice A is incorrect as reading level should match the patient's, not a fixed standard. Choice C is wrong because storing leftovers encourages misuse—antibiotics should be completed. Choice D is incorrect since language should suit the patient, not always English.
Question 4 of 9
The process that clears the body of a drug is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because excretion is the process by which the body eliminates a drug, primarily via the kidneys, completing its removal from the system. Choice A is incorrect as distribution moves the drug within the body, not out of it. Choice C is wrong because absorption brings the drug into the bloodstream, not clears it. Choice D is incorrect since metabolism transforms the drug, but excretion removes it.
Question 5 of 9
The primary care NP sees a 4-year-old child who has persistent asthma episodes for a well-child visit in October. The child recently completed a 7-day course of oral steroids. The NP plans to give the child flu vaccine and should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because LAIV is contraindicated in asthmatic children aged 2-4; TIV is safe post-steroids. Choice A is incorrect (LAIV excluded). Choice C is wrong (waiting unnecessary). Choice D is inaccurate (waiting not needed).
Question 6 of 9
Drugs that are commonly used off-label include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because gabapentin (e.g., anxiety), amitriptyline (e.g., pain), and quetiapine (e.g., insomnia) are often used off-label, supported by evidence, per clinical practice. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one drug. Choice B is wrong by itself because amitriptyline is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since quetiapine is only one agent.
Question 7 of 9
Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because steady state is reached after four to five half-lives, when absorption equals elimination, stabilizing drug levels for therapeutic monitoring. Choice A is incorrect as the second dose is too early for steady state. Choice C is wrong because patient perception doesn't define pharmacokinetics. Choice D is incorrect since IV timing varies and doesn't inherently match steady state.
Question 8 of 9
Drugs that are affected by genetic polymorphisms of TPMT include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because azathioprine's metabolism via TPMT (thiopurine methyltransferase) varies genetically, risking toxicity in poor metabolizers if not adjusted. Choice A is incorrect as warfarin uses CYP2C9 and VKORC1, not TPMT. Choice C is wrong because acetaminophen isn't metabolized by TPMT—it's glucuronidated. Choice D is incorrect since only azathioprine is TPMT-dependent.
Question 9 of 9
Strategies to prevent drug abuse include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because education (awareness), access limits (e.g., PDMPs), and screening (early intervention) all prevent abuse, per public health strategies. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one method. Choice B is wrong by itself because access is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since screening is only one approach.