ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.
Question 2 of 9
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration ensures that generic drugs:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the FDA requires generics to have the same active ingredient, strength, and efficacy as brand-name drugs, ensuring therapeutic equivalence. Choice B is incorrect as cost isn't FDA-regulated—it's market-driven. Choice C is wrong because color can vary. Choice D is incorrect since only A is FDA-enforced.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.
Question 4 of 9
A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.
Question 5 of 9
Strategies to improve adherence to medication regimes include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because involving a family member improves adherence by providing support and reinforcing education, especially for complex regimens. Choice A is incorrect as assuming understanding risks miscommunication. Choice B is wrong because sixth-grade level may not suit all patients—tailoring is better. Choice D is incorrect since health literacy often differs from general literacy, requiring specific assessment.
Question 6 of 9
Herbal products that should be avoided when a patient is taking warfarin include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because ginkgo biloba has antiplatelet effects, enhancing warfarin's anticoagulation and bleeding risk, so it should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as echinacea doesn't significantly interact with warfarin. Choice C is wrong because valerian root's sedative effects don't notably affect anticoagulation. Choice D is incorrect since only ginkgo biloba poses a clear risk.
Question 7 of 9
In every state, prescriptive authority for NPs includes the ability to write prescriptions:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because all states grant NPs some prescriptive authority, but it’s often limited to specific drug classes. Choice A is incorrect as not all states allow controlled substances. Choice C is wrong since physician involvement is required in many states. Choice D is inaccurate as full independence isn’t universal.
Question 8 of 9
Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day's dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because a loading dose, like azithromycin's higher first-day dose, quickly elevates drug levels to the therapeutic range for faster effect. Choice B is incorrect as steady state, not loading, takes four to five half-lives; loading bypasses this delay. Choice C is wrong because renal function affects maintenance dosing, not the loading concept. Choice D is incorrect since circulation to tissues is a distribution issue, not the purpose of a loading dose.
Question 9 of 9
The process that clears the body of a drug is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because excretion is the process by which the body eliminates a drug, primarily via the kidneys, completing its removal from the system. Choice A is incorrect as distribution moves the drug within the body, not out of it. Choice C is wrong because absorption brings the drug into the bloodstream, not clears it. Choice D is incorrect since metabolism transforms the drug, but excretion removes it.