A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a concerning sign of levothyroxine toxicity and should be reported to the provider promptly. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body's thyroid hormones. When a client experiences heat intolerance, it can indicate that the dose of levothyroxine is too high, leading to hyperthyroidism symptoms. Weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with levothyroxine toxicity; instead, they are more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. Taking it at the onset of chest pain ensures prompt relief by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart muscle. Storing nitroglycerin in a cool, dark place helps maintain its potency, while taking it with food can alter its absorption. Timing the medication with bedtime is not necessary, but prompt administration at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for effective management of angina. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication in a cool, dark place, taking it before bedtime, and taking it with food are not essential instructions for nitroglycerin use. The priority is to administer it promptly when chest pain occurs to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because stopping high-dose opioids after prolonged use risks a late ADR, like withdrawal symptoms, occurring after treatment ends. Choice A is incorrect as ‘rapid' isn't a standard ADR type. Choice B is wrong because first-dose reactions occur at initiation, not cessation. Choice D is incorrect since delayed implies long-term effects like cancer, not immediate post-use issues.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because oral contraceptives reduce menstrual blood loss, preventing iron-deficiency anemia. Choice A is incorrect (iron for active anemia). Choice B is wrong (folic acid not preventive here). Choice D is inaccurate (diet insufficient).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance due to high abuse potential, per DEA classification. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen is not controlled. Choice C is wrong because ibuprofen is not a controlled substance. Choice D is incorrect since only oxycodone fits.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because serum sickness (fever, rash, lymphadenopathy) occurs days to weeks after TMP/SMX. Choice B is incorrect (immediate within 30 minutes). Choice C is wrong (blood-related, 7-14 days). Choice D is inaccurate (rash syndromes, 48-72 hours).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because all states grant NPs some prescriptive authority, but it’s often limited to specific drug classes. Choice A is incorrect as not all states allow controlled substances. Choice C is wrong since physician involvement is required in many states. Choice D is inaccurate as full independence isn’t universal.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because LAIV is contraindicated in asthmatic children aged 2-4; TIV is safe post-steroids. Choice A is incorrect (LAIV excluded). Choice C is wrong (waiting unnecessary). Choice D is inaccurate (waiting not needed).