A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pregestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Pregestational diabetes is a known risk factor for developing preeclampsia due to the underlying vascular and inflammatory changes associated with diabetes. In contrast, choices A, B, and C are not typically considered risk factors for preeclampsia. A singleton pregnancy (choice A) is a normal occurrence and not a risk factor for preeclampsia. A BMI of 20 (choice B) falls within the healthy weight range and is not a known risk factor for preeclampsia. Maternal age of 32 years (choice C) is also not considered a significant risk factor for preeclampsia in the absence of other factors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia. C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia. D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Call for assistance. This is the first action the nurse should take in this emergency situation. Calling for help ensures that additional support and resources are available to manage the situation effectively. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (A) is not recommended as it can worsen the prolapsed cord. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (B) can lead to further complications. Administering oxygen (C) may be necessary but is not the priority when a prolapsed cord is present.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation. Other Choices: A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention. B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection. D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased urine output. At 26 weeks of gestation, decreased urine output can be a sign of potential complications like preeclampsia or dehydration, which require immediate medical attention to prevent harm to the mother and baby. Leukorrhea (choice A) is a common pregnancy symptom and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension (choice B) is a known issue in pregnancy but usually occurs later in the third trimester due to pressure on the vena cava when lying on the back. Periodic numbness of the fingers (choice C) can be related to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but not typically urgent at 26 weeks unless severe and persistent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss. 2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients. 3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition. 4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying the newborn's identification ensures the right baby is in the nursery. It is crucial for patient safety and prevents mix-ups. Confirming identification (choice A) is important but comes after verification. Administering vitamin K (choice C) is a necessary procedure but not the first priority. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not as immediate as verifying identification. Thus, verifying the newborn's identification should be done first to prevent errors and ensure proper care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neural tube defect. Folic acid is essential for proper neural tube development in the fetus, preventing abnormalities like spina bifida. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid before and during pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Trisomy 21 (choice B) is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not influenced by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (choice C) and atrial septal defect (choice D) have multifactorial causes and are not directly prevented by folic acid consumption.