ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 5
A group of nurses is participating in a community health fair and is engaged in primary prevention activities. Which activities would these nurses be leading?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to promote health and stop disease before it starts, a key nursing role at health fairs. Family planning services educate on contraception, preventing unintended pregnancies a proactive health step. Accident prevention education, like teaching helmet use, averts injuries, targeting safety before incidents. Heart-healthy nutrition services promote diets reducing cardiovascular risk, fostering wellness pre-disease. Skin cancer screening, though vital, is secondary prevention, detecting issues early, not preventing onset. Rehabilitation for back pain is tertiary, managing existing conditions. These primary activities planning, safety, nutrition empower communities with knowledge and habits to sidestep illness, aligning with nursing's preventive focus, leveraging education to build health resilience before crises emerge.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse manager is conducting an educational session for the nurses on non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers ( $\beta$ blockers). How should the nurse manager accurately describe the mechanism of action of these medications? List the options in order from first to last.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers (e.g., propranolol) inhibit the sympathetic nervous system's effects on betaâ‚ (heart) and betaâ‚‚ (lungs, vessels) receptors. The mechanism sequence is: (1) Betaâ‚ and betaâ‚‚ receptor sites are blocked (C), (2) Epinephrine and norepinephrine actions are blocked (B), (3) Heart rate and blood pressure are decreased (A), (4) Cardiac workload and oxygen demand decreases (D). Blocking beta receptors (C) is the initial step, preventing catecholamines (B) from binding, which reduces heart rate and vasoconstriction (A), ultimately lowering myocardial oxygen demand (D). Incorrect sequencing, like starting with heart rate reduction, skips the pharmacological basis. The CSV requires one answer, so C is chosen as the foundational step. Rationale: Beta blockade directly inhibits receptor activation, a primary action taught in pharmacology education, leading to downstream effects critical for conditions like hypertension or angina, ensuring nurses understand the drug's systemic impact.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy tube who is receiving mechanical ventilation. The nurse is monitoring for complications related to the tracheostomy and suspects tracheoesophageal fistula when which occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF), a rare tracheostomy complication, involves an abnormal connection between trachea and esophagus. Aspiration of gastric contents during suctioning (B) is a definitive sign, indicating esophageal leakage into the airway. Frequent suctioning (A) or excessive secretions (D) are nonspecific. Pink skin (C) reflects good oxygenation, not TEF. B is correct. Rationale: TEF allows gastric contents to enter the trachea, detected during suctioning, requiring urgent intervention like tube adjustment or surgery, distinct from routine secretion issues, per critical care nursing.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheal tube. During the procedure, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor that the heart rate has dropped 10 beats. Which should be the nurse's next action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 10-beat heart rate drop during suctioning suggests vagal stimulation or hypoxia; stopping the procedure and oxygenating (B) is the next action to reverse this. Notifying the RN (A) or limiting time (D) follows. Continuing (C) risks worsening. B is correct. Rationale: Suctioning can trigger bradycardia via vagal nerve activation or oxygen depletion; halting and oxygenating restores stability, a critical step per airway management guidelines, preventing further cardiac compromise.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted with posttraumatic brain injury and multiple fractures. The client's eyes remain closed, and there is no evidence of verbalization or movement when the nurse changes the client's position. What score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GCS assesses eye opening (1-4), verbal (1-5), and motor (1-6). No response (eyes closed, no verbalization, no movement) scores 1+1+1=3 (A). Higher scores (B, C, D) require responses. A is correct. Rationale: A score of 3 is the lowest GCS, indicating deep coma, critical for documenting severe brain injury and guiding urgent care, per trauma assessment standards.