A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An absence of blood in stool. This suggests Crohn's disease over ulcerative colitis because Crohn's can involve any part of the GI tract and may not always present with blood in stool, in contrast to ulcerative colitis which typically involves the rectum and almost always presents with blood in stool due to continuous inflammation in the colon. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, which typically presents with a pattern of exacerbations and remissions, severe diarrhea, and rectal mucosal involvement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obstructive sleep apnea. The patient's symptoms of daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep, and snoring are classic signs of obstructive sleep apnea, a condition where the upper airway collapses during sleep, leading to pauses in breathing. This results in poor sleep quality and daytime fatigue. Adenoiditis (choice A) and chronic tonsillitis (choice B) typically present with symptoms like sore throat and difficulty swallowing, which are not seen in this patient. Laryngeal cancer (choice D) would present with hoarseness, persistent cough, and difficulty swallowing, which are not mentioned in the patient's symptoms. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation, the most likely diagnosis is obstructive sleep apnea.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are modifiable risk factors for CAD. High cholesterol levels can be controlled through diet and medication. Hypertension can be managed through lifestyle changes and medication. Smoking is a behavior that can be modified. A is incorrect because gender and family history are non-modifiable risk factors. Obesity can be controlled but is not listed in the correct answer. B is incorrect because inactivity and stress are modifiable risk factors, but gender is not modifiable. D is incorrect because stress and family history are non-modifiable risk factors, and obesity is not listed in the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site. This is indicative of hemorrhage post-bariatric surgery as it signifies active bleeding. Clear drainage (Choice C) is normal post-surgery. An increase in blood pressure (Choice A) could be a sign of shock from hemorrhage, but it's not specific. A decrease in heart rate (Choice D) is not typically a sign of hemorrhage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Weight loss helps improve insulin sensitivity. 2. Managing weight is crucial for controlling blood sugar levels. 3. Dietitian-designed plans focus on balanced nutrition for diabetes management. 4. Weight loss can reduce the need for medication and improve overall health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Pancreas transplant is not a primary treatment for type 2 diabetes. B: Taking oral antidiabetic agents based on blood sugar levels is not ideal. D: Contacting the diabetes educator for insulin questions is important but not primary treatment.