ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because skipping insulin can lead to dangerous complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Taking insulin as prescribed ensures blood glucose control, preventing hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose closely helps adjust doses accordingly. Choice A is incorrect as skipping insulin can be life-threatening. Choice C is incorrect as reducing insulin without proper monitoring can lead to unstable glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as both long-acting and short-acting insulin are essential for managing type 1 diabetes.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Tis refers to carcinoma in situ, meaning the cancer is limited to the surface layer of cells in the cervix. 2. N0 indicates no regional lymph node involvement. 3. M0 indicates no distant metastasis. 4. Therefore, the cancer is localized only to the cervix, making answer A correct. Summary: B: Incorrect - Does not address the staging information provided in Tis, N0, M0. C: Incorrect - The staging information is already provided, and further testing may not be necessary at this stage. D: Incorrect - Staging information does not indicate difficulty in determining the original site of the cancer.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate severe abdominal pain in a patient with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, administering prescribed opioid analgesics. This intervention is appropriate for severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis as opioids are effective in managing pain. Encouraging oral intake (A) can worsen symptoms, a supine position (B) can exacerbate pain, and a heating pad (D) can aggravate inflammation. Administering opioid analgesics provides direct pain relief and is the most effective intervention for alleviating severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis.
Question 4 of 9
What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. This is because esophageal varices can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage. By controlling bleeding, we can prevent severe complications and potentially save the client's life. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal and may help prevent variceal bleeding in the future, but it is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the primary goal when managing acute bleeding from esophageal varices.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated with intravenous morphine. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary reason for administering morphine to a patient with MI is to reduce cardiac workload. Morphine acts as a vasodilator and decreases preload and afterload on the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen demand. This helps to improve coronary blood flow and decrease the workload on the heart muscle, which is crucial in the setting of an MI. Explanation for other choices: A: While morphine can help reduce pain in MI, the primary reason for administering it is to reduce cardiac workload. B: Morphine may have a calming effect, but the primary goal is to reduce cardiac workload. D: Morphine can actually decrease respiratory rate as a side effect, making this choice incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle weakness. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to impaired muscle contraction and weakness, especially in the face, neck, and extremities. Joint pain (A) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis. Loss of sensation (C) is more indicative of a sensory nerve disorder rather than a motor disorder like myasthenia gravis. Severe headache (D) is not a common symptom of myasthenia gravis; it is more likely to be associated with other conditions such as migraines or intracranial pathology.
Question 7 of 9
Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping warfarin one week before surgery reduces the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect can persist for several days, so stopping it earlier allows time for its effects to diminish. Choice A is incorrect because continuing warfarin until the day of surgery increases bleeding risk. Choice B is incorrect as stopping warfarin only three days before surgery may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is not a suitable substitute for warfarin in most cases.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing stomach acid production. Taking it before meals allows the medication to be most effective in inhibiting the proton pumps before they are stimulated by food intake. This timing optimizes the drug's ability to reduce acid secretion during the digestion process. Choice A (With meals) is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its effectiveness as it will not have enough time to inhibit acid production before food intake. Choice B (At bedtime) is also incorrect as omeprazole works best when taken before meals to prevent acid production. Choice D (After meals) is incorrect because waiting until after meals to take omeprazole means that acid production has already been stimulated by the food consumed, reducing the drug's effectiveness in inhibiting acid secretion.
Question 9 of 9
In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in CKD patients with anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps assess the effectiveness of the therapy in improving anemia. If hemoglobin levels increase, it indicates the therapy is working. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Serum creatinine - This measures kidney function, not the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for anemia in CKD patients. B: White blood cell count - Monitors immune function, not related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. D: Serum potassium - Important for monitoring electrolyte balance in CKD patients but not specific to assessing erythropoietin therapy effectiveness.