ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever and chills. This indicates a transfusion reaction because it is a common symptom of hemolytic reactions, where the body is reacting to incompatible blood. Elevated blood pressure (A) is not typically a sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (C) is more likely a sign of fluid overload. Bradycardia (D) is not a common symptom of a transfusion reaction. Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction due to the body's immune response to the blood transfusion.
Question 2 of 5
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. Monitoring PT is essential to ensure the patient's blood is clotting within the desired range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Platelet count (A) assesses the quantity of platelets, not the clotting function. Hemoglobin level (C) evaluates red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. White blood cell count (D) assesses immune function and infection risk, not clotting ability. PT is directly related to warfarin's mechanism of action, making it the most crucial parameter to monitor.
Question 3 of 5
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider." This is important because PTU can cause agranulocytosis, a serious side effect that can lead to severe infections. By reporting signs of infection early, the healthcare provider can monitor the client's blood counts and adjust treatment if necessary. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because PTU should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain and fatigue are not common side effects of PTU; in fact, weight loss and hyperactivity are more common.
Question 4 of 5
A client with Parkinson's disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should be included to address the client's bradykinesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage daily walking. Bradykinesia in Parkinson's disease refers to slowness of movement. Walking helps improve coordination, balance, and overall mobility in clients with Parkinson's. It promotes muscle strength and flexibility, counteracting the effects of bradykinesia. Walking also stimulates dopamine release, which is reduced in Parkinson's. Choice B is incorrect as thickened liquids are for dysphagia, not bradykinesia. Choice C is incorrect as meal frequency does not directly address bradykinesia. Choice D is incorrect as adaptive utensils help with fine motor skills, not slowness of movement.
Question 5 of 5
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.