ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones. C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect. D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.
Question 2 of 5
A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the safest intervention for a client with COPD. High flow rates can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation. Choice A is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as deep breathing and coughing can increase oxygen demand and worsen respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because oxygen should not be removed during eating or drinking, as it is essential for tissue oxygenation.
Question 4 of 5
The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Serum sodium - Furosemide may cause hyponatremia, but it is less critical compared to hypokalemia in a client with heart failure. C: Serum calcium - Furosemide does not directly affect calcium levels significantly in most cases. D: Serum magnesium - While furosemide can cause hypomagnesemia, monitoring potassium is more essential in this scenario due to its impact on cardiac function.
Question 5 of 5
A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid crossing your legs at the knees. Crossing legs increases risk of dislocation post hip replacement. It maintains proper alignment and reduces strain on the hip joint. Sitting in low chairs (B) can strain the hip. Bending at the waist (C) can strain the hip joint. Sleeping on the affected side (D) can lead to discomfort and pressure on the hip joint.