Questions 9

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach before breakfast to ensure optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a chair is not directly related to the administration of alendronate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid taking alendronate with milk. Choice D is also incorrect as the priority at this moment is the correct administration of the medication in the hospital setting.

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