A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for hypothyroidism. 2. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to symptom relapse. 3. Symptoms improving doesn't indicate the underlying condition is resolved. 4. Regular monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial. 5. Choice D shows misunderstanding of treatment duration and necessity. Summary: A: Correct, taking in the morning maximizes absorption. B: Correct, monitoring is necessary for dose adjustments. C: Correct, weight loss can affect thyroid hormone levels. D: Incorrect, as stopping medication prematurely is not advised.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly. This is important because metformin helps lower blood sugar levels, and monitoring glucose levels helps ensure the medication is effective and the client is not experiencing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option A is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin does not typically require fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as metformin does not affect potassium levels. Regularly monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulse rate of 56 BPM. A normal finding for a primigravida client 12 hours postpartum would be a lower pulse rate as the body is recovering from childbirth. A pulse rate of 56 BPM is within the normal range for an adult. A: Soft, spongy fundus would be a concerning finding as it could indicate uterine atony. B: Saturating two perineal pads per hour would be excessive bleeding and could indicate postpartum hemorrhage. D: Unilateral lower leg pain could be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, which is a potential complication postpartum.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asterixis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome associated with liver dysfunction. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a key clinical manifestation characterized by a flapping tremor of the hands when extended. This occurs due to impaired ammonia metabolism in the liver leading to neurotoxicity. Jaundice (B) is a sign of liver dysfunction but not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, common in liver cirrhosis but not indicative of hepatic encephalopathy. Splenomegaly (D) is enlargement of the spleen, which can occur in cirrhosis but is not a direct sign of hepatic encephalopathy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection. C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weigh the child daily. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to determine fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome as it provides real-time data on fluid status. Weight gain is a key indicator of fluid retention in these patients. Observing lower extremities for pitting edema (B) is subjective and may not accurately reflect fluid status. Measuring abdominal girth weekly (C) may not provide timely information on fluid retention. Weighing wet diapers (D) does not give a comprehensive picture of total fluid retention and may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because accessing an implanted port for infusion is a specialized skill that requires direct supervision to ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure. Step 1: A graduate nurse may not have sufficient experience with accessing ports. Step 2: The RN needs to ensure proper technique and prevent complications. Step 3: Direct supervision allows for immediate intervention if any issues arise. Other choices are incorrect because B: starting a transfusion is within the scope of practice for a nurse, C: assisting with a lumbar puncture can be done under indirect supervision, and D: weighing a client is a task that can be delegated to unlicensed personnel with proper training.