ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed for liver cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels. It works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, preventing its accumulation in the bloodstream. This helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of cirrhosis. Other choices are incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect blood sugar levels, liver inflammation, or bile flow in the context of liver cirrhosis.
Question 2 of 5
In a client with liver cirrhosis experiencing confusion and disorientation, what condition is most likely causing these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatic encephalopathy. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. This excess ammonia crosses the blood-brain barrier, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and disorientation. Hypoglycemia (B), electrolyte imbalance (C), and dehydration (D) can also contribute to altered mental status, but in a cirrhotic patient, hepatic encephalopathy is the most likely cause due to impaired ammonia metabolism.
Question 3 of 5
When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Correct answer is B (Low-sodium diet) for cirrhosis because sodium can worsen fluid retention and increase ascites. A (Low-protein diet) is not necessary unless hepatic encephalopathy is present. C (High-fiber diet) can help with constipation but not a primary concern. D (High-calcium diet) is not a priority for cirrhosis management.
Question 4 of 5
When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because teaching glucose self-monitoring and medication administration is the priority action to ensure the patient can manage their condition effectively post-discharge. This step is crucial for immediate management of hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect as addressing cardiovascular risk can be important but not the immediate priority. Option B is important but not as urgent as self-monitoring and medication administration. Option D is also important for long-term management but not as critical as ensuring immediate control of blood glucose levels through monitoring and medication.
Question 5 of 5
A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). This tool is specifically designed to assess for alcohol abuse in older adults, which is relevant in this case as alcohol consumption can be a risk factor for pancreatitis. The SMAST-G helps identify potential alcohol-related issues in the elderly population, allowing for appropriate interventions and care planning. Rationale: A: The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) is not the most appropriate tool in this scenario as it focuses on broader drug abuse rather than specifically alcohol abuse. B: The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar) is used to assess for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, not alcohol abuse itself. D: The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, which is not directly relevant to the admission assessment for pancreatitis in this case.