ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication on an empty stomach. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning, at least 30 minutes before eating, to ensure optimal absorption. Food can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine, reducing its effectiveness. Taking it with a meal (option A) or at bedtime (option B) may lead to decreased absorption. Taking it with an antacid (option D) can also interfere with absorption. Therefore, the best instruction is to take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize its therapeutic effects.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage frequent rest periods. For a client with hyperthyroidism, rest is crucial to conserve energy and support the body's recovery. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by increased metabolic rate, leading to fatigue and weakness. Rest periods help reduce metabolic demands and prevent exhaustion. A high-calorie diet (choice A) may be necessary to support increased metabolism but is not the priority. Restricting fluid intake (choice C) can lead to dehydration, which should be avoided in hyperthyroidism. Administering a stool softener (choice D) is unrelated to managing hyperthyroidism.
Question 3 of 9
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise in a swimming pool. This option is ideal for a 16-year-old with JRA because it provides a low-impact environment that helps strengthen muscles and improve joint mobility without putting excessive stress on the joints. Swimming also helps reduce pain and stiffness associated with JRA. Choice B (Splint affected joints during activity) is incorrect because splinting may restrict movement and hinder muscle strengthening. Choice C (Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily) is not as effective as active exercises in improving muscle strength and joint mobility. Choice D (Begin a training program of lifting weights and running) can be too high-impact and may exacerbate joint inflammation and pain in individuals with JRA.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 20 ml/hour. In severe dehydration, decreased urine output indicates compromised renal function and impaired fluid balance, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications. A: Heart rate of 110 bpm is elevated but not an immediate concern. B: Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is low but may be compensated in dehydration. D: Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration but not an immediate threat compared to inadequate urine output.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and unsteady gait (Wernicke's encephalopathy). Thiamine is crucial for brain function and alcohol interferes with its absorption. Vitamin B12 (choice B) deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms but is less likely in this case. Folic acid (choice C) deficiency can lead to anemia and neural tube defects, not directly related to the symptoms described. Vitamin D (choice D) deficiency typically presents with bone pain and muscle weakness, not confusion and gait issues.
Question 7 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function. A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary. C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy. D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the client's blood glucose level. The client's symptoms are indicative of hypoglycemia, which is a common complication in diabetes mellitus. Checking the blood glucose level will confirm the diagnosis and guide appropriate interventions. Administering insulin (B) could worsen the hypoglycemia. Giving a high-protein snack (C) may help raise blood sugar levels but should be done after confirming the diagnosis. Measuring blood pressure (D) is not the priority in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High Fowler's position. Placing the client in a High Fowler's position helps reduce dyspnea and orthopnea by facilitating lung expansion and improving ventilation. In this position, the client's head and chest are elevated at a 90-degree angle, allowing for maximal chest expansion and improved oxygenation. This position also helps reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing venous return, which can help alleviate symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Summary: - A: High Fowler's position is correct as it facilitates lung expansion and improves ventilation. - B: Supine position would not be ideal as it can exacerbate symptoms by increasing pressure on the lungs and heart. - C: Trendelenburg position would worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and fluid overload. - D: Sims' position is used for procedures or to facilitate drainage, not for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea.