ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss. 2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients. 3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition. 4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 2 of 5
During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased urine output. At 26 weeks of gestation, decreased urine output can be a sign of potential complications like preeclampsia or dehydration, which require immediate medical attention to prevent harm to the mother and baby. Leukorrhea (choice A) is a common pregnancy symptom and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension (choice B) is a known issue in pregnancy but usually occurs later in the third trimester due to pressure on the vena cava when lying on the back. Periodic numbness of the fingers (choice C) can be related to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but not typically urgent at 26 weeks unless severe and persistent.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in early labor. The client has a platelet count of 75,000/mm3 and is requesting pain relief. Which of the following treatment modalities should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Attention-focusing. At 40 weeks gestation with a platelet count of 75,000/mm3, epidural analgesia is contraindicated due to the risk of epidural hematoma. Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for labor pain relief. Pudendal nerve block is used for local anesthesia during the second stage of labor, not for early labor pain relief. Attention-focusing techniques can help the client manage pain without pharmacological interventions, ensuring safety for both the client and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This statement is the correct teaching point because for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of 130-140 mg/dL is considered elevated and may indicate gestational diabetes. The other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because the glucose solution is typically consumed one hour before the test, not prior to the test itself. B is incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake is not necessary for this test. D is also incorrect because fasting for 8 hours is not required for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
Question 5 of 5
A full-term newborn is being assessed by a nurse 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Respiratory rate 18/min) Rationale: A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-60 breaths/min. A rate of 18/min is below the normal range, indicating potential respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Summary of other choices: A: Heart rate 168/min - Normal range for a newborn is 120-160/min. C: Tremors - Common in newborns due to immature nervous system, usually self-resolving. D: Fine crackles - May be present due to residual amniotic fluid and typically resolve without intervention.