A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this client should expect the health care provider to prescribe which medication for the management of the client's diarrhea?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Octreotide acetate. Octreotide is used to manage severe diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. It inhibits the release of serotonin and other hormones that contribute to diarrhea. Fluoxetine (A) is an antidepressant and not indicated for diarrhea. Levofloxacin (C) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not for diarrhea. Valganciclovir (D) is an antiviral used for cytomegalovirus infections in HIV patients, but not for diarrhea management. Therefore, Octreotide acetate is the appropriate choice for this client's chronic severe diarrhea.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Easy bruising. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells by the immune system, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, mild jaundice, and spleen enlargement. Easy bruising is not a typical symptom of autoimmune hemolytic anemia because it is primarily related to platelet disorders or clotting abnormalities, not red blood cell destruction. Therefore, easy bruising is not directly associated with this specific type of anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Choice B is correct: 1. Iron-deficiency anemia is due to low iron levels in the body. 2. Ferrous sulfate is a common iron supplement used to increase iron levels. 3. Non-enteric-coated form is preferred for better absorption. 4. Enteric-coated or sustained-release forms hinder absorption. Summary: A: Vitamin B12 is not used for iron-deficiency anemia. C: Enteric-coated or sustained-release forms hinder absorption. D: Whole blood transfusion is not the first-line treatment for iron-deficiency anemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intestinal polyps. Intestinal polyps can cause long-term blood loss without noticeable symptoms because the blood loss is gradual and may not be enough to cause visible signs like anemia. Bleeding from the kidneys (A), heavy menstrual bleeding (B), and a ruptured blood vessel (D) are more likely to cause noticeable symptoms such as blood in urine, excessive menstrual bleeding, and sudden severe bleeding, respectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pancytopenia. Pancytopenia refers to a reduction in all three major blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). In the given scenario where the entire CBC is suppressed due to anemia, infection, or hemorrhage, it signifies a decrease in all blood cell types. A: Erythroplasia specifically refers to abnormal growth of red blood cells, not a suppression of all blood cell types. B: Thrombocytopenia is the reduction in platelet count, not all blood cell types. D: Leukopenia is the decrease in only white blood cells, not all blood cell types. Therefore, C is the correct answer in this context.