ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. 2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia. 3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects. 4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. - Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively. - Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary action of amlodipine is to reduce blood pressure by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, leading to improved blood flow and lower blood pressure. This is achieved by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels. Increasing heart rate (A), lowering cholesterol levels (C), and decreasing blood sugar levels (D) are not the primary actions of amlodipine and are not directly related to its mechanism of action in treating hypertension.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Incorrect choices: A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin. D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
Question 4 of 9
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. 2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia. 3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects. 4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. - Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively. - Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 9
What should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed ceftriaxone for bacterial pneumonia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used for bacterial pneumonia. Completing the full course is essential to completely eradicate the infection and prevent antibiotic resistance. Taking medication as prescribed is a general principle, but not specific to this medication. Urine color changes are not associated with ceftriaxone. Dairy products do not interact with ceftriaxone.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit acid secretion before food intake. Taking it with meals (choice A) may decrease its effectiveness as it needs time to be absorbed. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) may not provide optimal coverage throughout the day. Taking it after meals (choice D) may not allow enough time for the medication to start working before the next meal.
Question 7 of 9
A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride causes muscle paralysis, leading to the extremities being paralyzed. This indicates that the medication is effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission. B: Twitching with peripheral nerve stimulation indicates incomplete blockade. C: Clenching fist upon command indicates preserved muscle strength. D: Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Desmopressin is a synthetic form of vasopressin used to replace the hormone in diabetes insipidus. The primary purpose is to decrease urine output by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing excessive urination and preventing dehydration. Choice A is incorrect as desmopressin actually decreases urine output. Choice B is incorrect as desmopressin does not directly affect blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as desmopressin does not primarily lower blood pressure.
Question 9 of 9
While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately. The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, as evidenced by decreased deep tendon reflexes, bradypnea (respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute), oliguria (urinary output of 90 ml in 4 hours), and elevated magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dl. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and central nervous system depression. Continuing the infusion (choice A) would worsen the toxicity. Decreasing the infusion (choice B) may not be sufficient to address the toxicity. Administering calcium gluconate (choice D) is not the immediate priority; stopping the magnesium sulfate infusion is essential to prevent further harm.