A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse teach the client to report?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yellow or blurred vision. Digoxin toxicity can lead to visual disturbances, such as yellow or blurred vision, due to its effects on the optic nerve. The nurse should teach the client to report this symptom immediately as it indicates a serious adverse effect. Increased appetite (A), weight gain (C), and nasal congestion (D) are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are more commonly associated with other health conditions or side effects of medications. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of monitoring and reporting any visual changes to prevent serious complications from digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is a waste product that reflects protein intake and kidney function. In chronic kidney disease, high protein intake can increase BUN levels, so monitoring BUN helps assess the effectiveness of the low-protein diet. Incorrect choices: B: Serum potassium - This is more related to kidney function but not specifically affected by a low-protein diet. C: Serum calcium - Calcium levels are not directly affected by protein intake or a low-protein diet in chronic kidney disease. D: Creatinine clearance - This measures kidney function but is not directly influenced by protein intake.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. This is the desired outcome in a client with chronic renal failure, as it helps alleviate anemia. Choice A is incorrect because increased urine output is not a direct indicator of erythropoietin effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as erythropoietin does not directly impact blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because stable potassium levels are not a primary outcome of erythropoietin therapy in chronic renal failure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is C: Use this medication twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used for maintenance therapy in asthma to provide long-term control of symptoms and prevent exacerbations. It should not be used for acute asthma attacks as it does not provide quick relief like rescue inhalers such as albuterol (choice A). It is not meant to replace albuterol, so it should not be used before using albuterol (choice B). Using salmeterol as needed for wheezing (choice D) is not appropriate as it is a maintenance medication and not a rescue medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume a low-protein snack with the medication. This is because levodopa absorption is improved when taken with a low-protein snack, reducing the risk of nausea. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach can exacerbate nausea. Choice C is incorrect as increasing dairy intake can interfere with levodopa absorption. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping the medication can worsen Parkinson's symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness and tingling around the mouth. This finding indicates potential hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent serious complications. Hoarseness and a sore throat (A) are expected post-thyroidectomy due to intubation. Difficulty swallowing (B) can be due to swelling but is not immediately life-threatening. A temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C) (D) is slightly elevated but not a priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, especially in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent cardiac complications. A: Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL is high but not immediately life-threatening. C: Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. D: Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L is slightly low but does not pose an immediate risk to the patient's life.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication on an empty stomach. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken on an empty stomach, about 30 minutes before meals. This allows the medication to be absorbed effectively and provides optimal therapeutic effects in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it with food (choice A) may decrease its efficacy. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) is not ideal as it may not coincide with the peak acid production in the stomach. Taking it as needed for pain relief (choice D) is not appropriate as omeprazole is a scheduled medication for the management of peptic ulcer disease, not for immediate pain relief.