ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. In patients with DVT receiving heparin, the goal is to keep the aPTT within a therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the dose of heparin is appropriate. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
Question 2 of 5
A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypernatremia. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to an increase in sodium levels. Addison's disease involves low levels of cortisol and aldosterone, so fludrocortisone is used to replace aldosterone. Monitoring for hypernatremia is crucial to prevent complications like hypertension and fluid retention. Hyperkalemia (A) is not expected due to the drug's potassium-excreting effect. Hyponatremia (B) is unlikely as the drug promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (D) is not directly related to fludrocortisone therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication on an empty stomach. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken on an empty stomach, about 30 minutes before meals. This allows the medication to be absorbed effectively and provides optimal therapeutic effects in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it with food (choice A) may decrease its efficacy. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) is not ideal as it may not coincide with the peak acid production in the stomach. Taking it as needed for pain relief (choice D) is not appropriate as omeprazole is a scheduled medication for the management of peptic ulcer disease, not for immediate pain relief.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers. Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasms of small arteries, leading to reduced blood flow and color changes in the digits. Cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) are common during episodes. Thickened and hardened skin (A) is associated with scleroderma. Painless ulcers on the fingertips (B) are seen in advanced stages of systemic sclerosis. Red, scaly patches on the hands (D) are indicative of psoriasis, not Raynaud's phenomenon.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is C: Use this medication twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used for maintenance therapy in asthma to provide long-term control of symptoms and prevent exacerbations. It should not be used for acute asthma attacks as it does not provide quick relief like rescue inhalers such as albuterol (choice A). It is not meant to replace albuterol, so it should not be used before using albuterol (choice B). Using salmeterol as needed for wheezing (choice D) is not appropriate as it is a maintenance medication and not a rescue medication.