ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying the fentanyl patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin ensures proper absorption and effectiveness. Moisture, oils, and hair can interfere with absorption. Option B is incorrect as heating pads can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Option C is incorrect because fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours, not daily. Option D is incorrect because rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and tolerance development.
Question 2 of 5
A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume a low-protein snack with the medication. This is because levodopa absorption is improved when taken with a low-protein snack, reducing the risk of nausea. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach can exacerbate nausea. Choice C is incorrect as increasing dairy intake can interfere with levodopa absorption. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping the medication can worsen Parkinson's symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. This is the desired outcome in a client with chronic renal failure, as it helps alleviate anemia. Choice A is incorrect because increased urine output is not a direct indicator of erythropoietin effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as erythropoietin does not directly impact blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because stable potassium levels are not a primary outcome of erythropoietin therapy in chronic renal failure.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administer vitamin K as prescribed. Rationale: 1. Cirrhosis impairs liver function, leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. 2. Vitamin K is essential for synthesizing clotting factors; administering it helps improve clotting ability. 3. Monitoring for infection (A) is important but does not directly address the clotting issue. 4. Limiting protein intake (B) is not necessary for bleeding prevention in cirrhosis. 5. Encouraging fluid intake (D) is important for overall health but does not specifically reduce the risk of bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to place the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice B). This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and improving ventilation. With severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority is to optimize respiratory function. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) may be indicated later for pain and anxiety but is not the immediate priority. Initiating continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) is important but not as urgent as addressing the respiratory distress. Preparing the client for intubation (Choice D) should be considered if respiratory distress worsens, but initial interventions should focus on improving oxygenation through positioning.