A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the safest intervention for a client with COPD. High flow rates can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation. Choice A is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as deep breathing and coughing can increase oxygen demand and worsen respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because oxygen should not be removed during eating or drinking, as it is essential for tissue oxygenation.

Question 2 of 5

A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid crossing your legs at the knees. Crossing legs increases risk of dislocation post hip replacement. It maintains proper alignment and reduces strain on the hip joint. Sitting in low chairs (B) can strain the hip. Bending at the waist (C) can strain the hip joint. Sleeping on the affected side (D) can lead to discomfort and pressure on the hip joint.

Question 3 of 5

A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for hypothyroidism. 2. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to symptom relapse. 3. Symptoms improving doesn't indicate the underlying condition is resolved. 4. Regular monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial. 5. Choice D shows misunderstanding of treatment duration and necessity. Summary: A: Correct, taking in the morning maximizes absorption. B: Correct, monitoring is necessary for dose adjustments. C: Correct, weight loss can affect thyroid hormone levels. D: Incorrect, as stopping medication prematurely is not advised.

Question 4 of 5

A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asterixis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome associated with liver dysfunction. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a key clinical manifestation characterized by a flapping tremor of the hands when extended. This occurs due to impaired ammonia metabolism in the liver leading to neurotoxicity. Jaundice (B) is a sign of liver dysfunction but not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, common in liver cirrhosis but not indicative of hepatic encephalopathy. Splenomegaly (D) is enlargement of the spleen, which can occur in cirrhosis but is not a direct sign of hepatic encephalopathy.

Question 5 of 5

A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

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