ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in hyperkalemia, preventing dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. It does not lower potassium levels but helps protect the heart. B: Encouraging a diet high in potassium would worsen hyperkalemia. C: Providing potassium supplements would further elevate potassium levels. D: Restricting sodium intake does not directly address hyperkalemia.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function. A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary. C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy. D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any persistent cough to your healthcare provider. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a dry, persistent cough as a side effect. This cough can be a sign of a serious condition called angioedema. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report any cough to their healthcare provider promptly to assess and manage it. Incorrect choices: A: Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary when taking enalapril, as it does not typically cause potassium imbalances. C: Enalapril can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a full meal is not a specific instruction. D: Avoiding grapefruit juice is typically recommended for medications metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme, which enalapril is not.
Question 4 of 5
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colchicine. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by reducing inflammation and pain. It works by decreasing the inflammatory response to urate crystals in the joints. Aspirin (choice A) is not recommended for gout treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Allopurinol (choice B) and Probenecid (choice D) are used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels and preventing future attacks, not for acute attacks. Colchicine is the appropriate choice for treating the client's acute gout symptoms.