Questions 9

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

Question 2 of 5

What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-protein diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may have difficulty filtering waste products from protein metabolism, leading to a buildup of toxins in the body. Therefore, reducing protein intake can help lessen the workload on the kidneys. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet would increase the workload on the kidneys, while a low-sodium diet is beneficial for conditions like hypertension or heart failure but not specifically targeted for chronic kidney disease. A high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention and hypertension in patients with kidney disease.

Question 3 of 5

When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

Question 5 of 5

When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

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