ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rigid, board-like abdomen. This finding suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease, requiring immediate medical intervention. A: Active bowel sounds are expected. B: Blood pressure is within normal range. D: Heart rate is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. In summary, a rigid abdomen indicates peritonitis and requires urgent attention compared to the other choices.
Question 2 of 5
A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.
Question 3 of 5
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is the correct answer. Ranitidine is usually taken on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. Therefore, taking it with meals would decrease its efficacy. A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ranitidine at bedtime is common practice, smoking can worsen ulcer symptoms, and ranitidine does indeed reduce stomach acid.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections in patients. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and localized symptoms. Rationale: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone typically causes hyperglycemia. C: Hypotension is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause fluid retention and increased blood pressure. D: Weight loss is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort. D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.