ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This side effect can be bothersome and non-productive. Other choices are incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of lisinopril but rather a side effect of some other antihypertensive medications. Tachycardia is not associated with lisinopril; in fact, it can cause bradycardia in some cases. Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril and is more commonly associated with other classes of antihypertensive medications.
Question 2 of 9
A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This is the best action because it directly addresses the client's concern by clarifying the coverage for the bone marrow transplant. By contacting the HMO, the client can get accurate information on whether the transplant is covered and what steps need to be taken for approval. This empowers the client to make informed decisions regarding their healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because having the healthcare provider write a letter may not directly address the client's concerns about coverage. Choice C is incorrect as contacting a lawyer should be a last resort after exploring other options. Choice D is incorrect as involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this stage and may escalate the situation unnecessarily.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the client's blood glucose level. The client's symptoms are indicative of hypoglycemia, which is a common complication in diabetes mellitus. Checking the blood glucose level will confirm the diagnosis and guide appropriate interventions. Administering insulin (B) could worsen the hypoglycemia. Giving a high-protein snack (C) may help raise blood sugar levels but should be done after confirming the diagnosis. Measuring blood pressure (D) is not the priority in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Monitor your blood pressure regularly." This instruction is crucial for a client with hypertension prescribed hydrochlorothiazide because the medication helps lower blood pressure. By monitoring their blood pressure regularly, the client can track the effectiveness of the medication and ensure it is within the target range. This allows for early detection of any potential issues or the need for medication adjustments. Option A is incorrect because while it is generally recommended to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning, it is not the most critical instruction for this scenario. Option B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia, so avoiding high potassium foods is not necessary. Option D is also important but not as crucial as monitoring blood pressure, as reducing high-sodium foods can help manage hypertension but is not specific to hydrochlorothiazide.
Question 5 of 9
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise in a swimming pool. This option is ideal for a 16-year-old with JRA because it provides a low-impact environment that helps strengthen muscles and improve joint mobility without putting excessive stress on the joints. Swimming also helps reduce pain and stiffness associated with JRA. Choice B (Splint affected joints during activity) is incorrect because splinting may restrict movement and hinder muscle strengthening. Choice C (Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily) is not as effective as active exercises in improving muscle strength and joint mobility. Choice D (Begin a training program of lifting weights and running) can be too high-impact and may exacerbate joint inflammation and pain in individuals with JRA.
Question 7 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excessive cortisol production leads to characteristic symptoms like moon face (round, puffy face) and buffalo hump (fat accumulation at the back of the neck). This is due to redistribution of fat in the body. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) is seen in Addison's disease, not Cushing's. Hypotension (choice B) is unlikely due to the cortisol-induced sodium retention. Weight loss (choice D) is less common in Cushing's due to the metabolic changes causing weight gain.
Question 8 of 9
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever and chills. This indicates a transfusion reaction because it is a common symptom of hemolytic reactions, where the body is reacting to incompatible blood. Elevated blood pressure (A) is not typically a sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (C) is more likely a sign of fluid overload. Bradycardia (D) is not a common symptom of a transfusion reaction. Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction due to the body's immune response to the blood transfusion.