ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
Question 2 of 9
Reasons for restricted distribution of drugs include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because restricted distribution (e.g., REMS) is primarily for drugs with serious safety risks (e.g., thalidomide), not cost or supply alone. Choice A is incorrect as cost doesn't mandate restriction—insurance handles that. Choice C is wrong because limited supply isn't a REMS trigger. Choice D is incorrect since only B is the core reason.
Question 3 of 9
When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because synergy means the combined effect exceeds the sum of individual effects, enhancing therapeutic outcomes beyond additive results. Choice A is incorrect as it describes an additive, not synergistic, effect. Choice C is wrong because synergy doesn't reduce efficacy below individual effects. Choice D is incorrect since synergy is a predictable pharmacological principle, not entirely variable.
Question 4 of 9
The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because dosing cephalexin every 8 hours aligns with its biological half-life, the time it takes for half the drug to be eliminated, ensuring steady therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect as ‘propensity to target receptor' isn't a standard pharmacokinetic term for dosing decisions. Choice C is wrong because pharmacodynamics (drug effects) informs efficacy, not timing. Choice D is incorrect since safety and side effects influence drug choice, not specifically the 8-hour interval.
Question 5 of 9
Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because phase I metabolism, involving cytochrome P450 enzymes, relies on protein for enzyme synthesis; malnutrition impairs this, reducing metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as iron deficiency affects oxygen transport, not directly phase I processes. Choice C is wrong since only protein malnutrition, not iron deficiency, is directly relevant. Choice D is incorrect because protein malnutrition does impact metabolism.
Question 6 of 9
The primary care NP performs a physical examination on an 89-year-old patient who is about to enter a skilled nursing facility. The patient reports having had chickenpox as a child. The NP should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Zostavax is recommended for adults over 60 to prevent shingles, regardless of prior chickenpox. Choice A is incorrect (titer not needed). Choice B is wrong (Varivax not for shingles). Choice D is inaccurate (prophylaxis not standard).
Question 7 of 9
The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.
Question 8 of 9
An NP is prescribing a medication for a 6-month-old infant. The medication comes in the following formulations. Which one should the NP select to improve absorption and distribution of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral elixirs ensure even drug distribution and good GI absorption in infants. Choice B is incorrect (rectal absorption is unreliable). Choice C is wrong (lipid solubility doesn’t ensure distribution). Choice D is inaccurate (sustained-release is poorly absorbed in infants).
Question 9 of 9
A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.