A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's chest pain persists despite three doses of nitroglycerin, indicating a potentially severe cardiac issue like a myocardial infarction. The priority for the nurse in this situation is to involve the healthcare provider promptly. Calling the healthcare provider immediately is essential to ensure timely evaluation and appropriate intervention for the client. Administering more nitroglycerin without further assessment or instructions may not be safe and could delay necessary treatments. Providing oxygen or changing the client's position may offer some comfort but does not address the underlying potentially life-threatening condition, making these options less appropriate as the immediate next best action.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is correct because using licensed pharmacies (regulated supply), checking packaging (authenticity cues), and avoiding unverified online sources (high-risk) all prevent counterfeit drug use, per FDA advice. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one strategy. Choice B is wrong by itself because packaging is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since online avoidance is only one method.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because phase I metabolism, involving cytochrome P450 enzymes, relies on protein for enzyme synthesis; malnutrition impairs this, reducing metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as iron deficiency affects oxygen transport, not directly phase I processes. Choice C is wrong since only protein malnutrition, not iron deficiency, is directly relevant. Choice D is incorrect because protein malnutrition does impact metabolism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because CNMs have prescriptive authority in all 50 states. Choice A is incorrect as they can treat partners for STDs. Choice C is wrong since their authority isn’t limited to labor drugs. Choice D is inaccurate as they practice in various settings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because dosing cephalexin every 8 hours aligns with its biological half-life, the time it takes for half the drug to be eliminated, ensuring steady therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect as ‘propensity to target receptor' isn't a standard pharmacokinetic term for dosing decisions. Choice C is wrong because pharmacodynamics (drug effects) informs efficacy, not timing. Choice D is incorrect since safety and side effects influence drug choice, not specifically the 8-hour interval.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral elixirs ensure even drug distribution and good GI absorption in infants. Choice B is incorrect (rectal absorption is unreliable). Choice C is wrong (lipid solubility doesn’t ensure distribution). Choice D is inaccurate (sustained-release is poorly absorbed in infants).