A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, affecting the PT and INR. Monitoring these levels helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing clot formation. Platelet count (A) assesses clotting ability but not the effectiveness of warfarin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (C) assesses intrinsic pathway clotting factors, not affected by warfarin. Fibrinogen level (D) assesses the final step of clot formation, not specific to warfarin effectiveness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Initiating short, frequent contacts with the client will promote trust by establishing a consistent and supportive presence. Step 2: This approach allows the nurse to build rapport and demonstrate genuine concern for the client's well-being. Step 3: Regular interactions can help the client feel understood and supported, leading to a more trusting relationship. Step 4: By maintaining frequent contact, the nurse can monitor the client's well-being and provide reassurance as needed. Step 5: This proactive approach fosters trust and a therapeutic alliance, enhancing the client's overall care experience.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased vital capacity. This finding indicates respiratory muscle weakness, which can lead to respiratory failure in Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Immediate action is needed to prevent respiratory compromise. Choice A is a common finding in Guillain-Barr© and does not require immediate action. Choice B is characteristic of Guillain-Barr© and should be monitored but not the most urgent. Choice C could indicate other issues but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider." This is important because PTU can cause agranulocytosis, a serious side effect that can lead to severe infections. By reporting signs of infection early, the healthcare provider can monitor the client's blood counts and adjust treatment if necessary. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because PTU should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain and fatigue are not common side effects of PTU; in fact, weight loss and hyperactivity are more common.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. Monitoring PT is essential to ensure the patient's blood is clotting within the desired range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Platelet count (A) assesses the quantity of platelets, not the clotting function. Hemoglobin level (C) evaluates red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. White blood cell count (D) assesses immune function and infection risk, not clotting ability. PT is directly related to warfarin's mechanism of action, making it the most crucial parameter to monitor.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This is the best action because it directly addresses the client's concern by clarifying the coverage for the bone marrow transplant. By contacting the HMO, the client can get accurate information on whether the transplant is covered and what steps need to be taken for approval. This empowers the client to make informed decisions regarding their healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because having the healthcare provider write a letter may not directly address the client's concerns about coverage. Choice C is incorrect as contacting a lawyer should be a last resort after exploring other options. Choice D is incorrect as involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this stage and may escalate the situation unnecessarily.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness and tingling around the mouth. This finding indicates potential hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent serious complications. Hoarseness and a sore throat (A) are expected post-thyroidectomy due to intubation. Difficulty swallowing (B) can be due to swelling but is not immediately life-threatening. A temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C) (D) is slightly elevated but not a priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased pedal edema. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure by improving the heart's ability to pump effectively. As the medication helps to reduce fluid buildup in the body, a decrease in pedal edema (swelling in the feet and ankles) indicates that digoxin is effectively managing the client's heart failure. Increased heart rate (A) may indicate digoxin toxicity, elevated blood pressure (C) is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness, and improved urine output (D) may be a result of diuretic therapy rather than specifically digoxin efficacy in heart failure management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: LDL of 200 mg/dL. Elevated LDL levels are a major risk factor for CAD and require immediate intervention. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) is used to lower LDL levels. High LDL contributes to plaque buildup in arteries. A: Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL is within the normal range and doesn't require immediate intervention. C: Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL are also within the normal range and don't pose an immediate risk. D: HDL of 40 mg/dL is considered low, but it is not as critical as high LDL levels in the context of CAD.