ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 4
A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Methotrexate (Rheumatrex). Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug commonly prescribed for managing rheumatoid arthritis. It helps reduce inflammation and pain by targeting the immune system's overactivity. Acetaminophen (A) is a mild pain reliever and does not treat the underlying inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Ibuprofen (B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help with pain and inflammation but is not as effective in managing rheumatoid arthritis as methotrexate. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that can provide quick relief from inflammation and pain, but it is typically used for short-term management due to its potential side effects.
Question 2 of 4
A client with a cold is taking the antitussive benzonatate (Tessalon). Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denies having coughing spells. Benzonatate is an antitussive medication that suppresses cough reflex. If the client denies having coughing spells, it indicates that the medication is effectively suppressing the cough. This is the most direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness. A: Reports reduced nasal discharge - This is not directly related to the effectiveness of benzonatate in suppressing cough. C: Able to sleep through the night - While improved sleep may result from reduced coughing, it is not as specific an indicator of antitussive effectiveness as denying coughing spells. D: Expectorating bronchial secretions - This indicates productive coughing, which is not the intended effect of benzonatate.
Question 3 of 4
During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a primary symptom of COPD due to impaired airflow. Assessing dyspnea helps determine the effectiveness of COPD treatment. Tachycardia (B) may occur but is not a primary symptom. Unilateral diminished breath sounds (C) suggest other conditions, not COPD. Edema of the ankles (D) is more indicative of heart failure.
Question 4 of 4
The preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output. In the early stages of shock, the body compensates by increasing heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain perfusion. Mental status change can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion. Low urine output is a sign of decreased renal perfusion. A: Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not indicative of shock. In shock, skin becomes cool and clammy, blood pressure drops, and pupils dilate. B: Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are not early signs of shock. Bradycardia and hypotension occur in the late stages of shock. Respiratory acidosis is a complication of shock, not an early symptom. C: Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds are signs of shock but not early indicators. Mottled skin appears in the late stages of shock, tach