A client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency disease informs the nurse that the client has been experiencing a new onset of a dry cough and occasional shortness of breath. After determining that the client's vital signs are within reference ranges, what action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the client for signs and symptoms of infection. 1. Given the client's primary immunodeficiency disease, they are at increased risk for infections. 2. The new onset of a dry cough and shortness of breath could indicate a respiratory infection. 3. Vital signs being within reference ranges do not rule out an underlying infection. 4. Assessing for signs of infection allows for timely intervention and treatment. Summary: A: Administering a nebulized bronchodilator is not appropriate without assessing for infection first. B: Performing oral suctioning is not indicated based on the client's symptoms. D: Teaching deep breathing and coughing exercises may be helpful, but assessing for infection is the priority.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Octreotide acetate. Octreotide is used to manage severe diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. It inhibits the release of serotonin and other hormones that contribute to diarrhea. Fluoxetine (A) is an antidepressant and not indicated for diarrhea. Levofloxacin (C) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not for diarrhea. Valganciclovir (D) is an antiviral used for cytomegalovirus infections in HIV patients, but not for diarrhea management. Therefore, Octreotide acetate is the appropriate choice for this client's chronic severe diarrhea.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding tendencies. Aplastic anemia is characterized by decreased production of blood cells, leading to a low platelet count and increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for changes in bleeding tendencies is crucial to assess the severity of the condition and intervene promptly if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the pathophysiology of aplastic anemia. Tracking intake and output is important for renal function, peripheral sensation for neurological assessment, and bowel function for gastrointestinal health, but they are not primary concerns in managing aplastic anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Easy bruising. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells by the immune system, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, mild jaundice, and spleen enlargement. Easy bruising is not a typical symptom of autoimmune hemolytic anemia because it is primarily related to platelet disorders or clotting abnormalities, not red blood cell destruction. Therefore, easy bruising is not directly associated with this specific type of anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Choice B is correct: 1. Iron-deficiency anemia is due to low iron levels in the body. 2. Ferrous sulfate is a common iron supplement used to increase iron levels. 3. Non-enteric-coated form is preferred for better absorption. 4. Enteric-coated or sustained-release forms hinder absorption. Summary: A: Vitamin B12 is not used for iron-deficiency anemia. C: Enteric-coated or sustained-release forms hinder absorption. D: Whole blood transfusion is not the first-line treatment for iron-deficiency anemia.