ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cullen's sign. Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis, indicating blood in the peritoneum due to internal bleeding from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign (choice A) is related to facial muscle spasm due to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign (choice C) is bluish discoloration of the cervix indicating pregnancy. Goodell's sign (choice D) is softening of the cervix in early pregnancy. These signs are not indicative of blood in the peritoneum like Cullen's sign is.
Question 3 of 5
During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension due to vasodilation and sympathetic blockade, resulting in decreased blood pressure. This is a common complication that nurses should monitor for and manage promptly. Vomiting (A) is not a direct complication of epidural anesthesia. Tachycardia (B) is not typically associated with epidural anesthesia but may indicate other issues. Respiratory depression (C) is more commonly seen with opioids and not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia.
Question 4 of 5
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
Question 5 of 5
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, having the client pant during the next contractions, is the correct answer. At 7 cm dilation with a sudden urge to push, it indicates possible fetal descent. Panting can help prevent rapid descent and reducing the risk of cervical edema or injury. It allows time for the cervix to dilate fully before pushing, preventing premature pushing and potential complications. Option A is not a priority at this stage. Option B is incorrect as observing for crowning might lead to premature pushing. Option D is not necessary as voiding is not the priority right now.