ATI LPN
ATI LPN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who recently underwent a coronary artery bypass graft is taking furosemide and metoprolol following the procedure. While developing a plan for a heart-healthy diet with the nurse, the client states that diet did not contribute to the heart disease and that the client should be fine just continuing to take the medications. According to the Stages of Change Model, which stage of change is the client in related to diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Stages of Change Model tracks behavior shift, and this client's denial of diet's role in heart disease places them in precontemplation. Here, individuals show no intent to change within six months, often resisting evidence like diet's link to atherosclerosis clinging to beliefs that meds alone suffice. Contemplation involves considering change, preparation plans it, and maintenance sustains it none apply, as the client isn't pondering dietary shifts. This stage reflects unawareness or defiance, common post-surgery when focusing on recovery, not prevention. Nursing must gently challenge this, using education like explaining sodium's impact on heart strain to nudge awareness, critical for moving them toward contemplation and eventual heart-healthy habits, preventing further cardiac issues.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching the parent of an infant client about common pediatric conditions. Which statement by the nurse about otitis media is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Otitis media (OM), middle ear infection, is often bacterial (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae). The correct statement is B: vaccines like PCV13 prevent some causes by targeting pathogens. A is false; OM typically follows infections. C is wrong; OM isn't highly contagious or systemic. D is incorrect; pacifiers increase OM risk. Rationale: Vaccines reduce OM incidence by immunizing against common bacteria, a key preventive strategy per AAP guidelines, unlike the other statements which misrepresent etiology or prevention.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a tracheostomy gets easily frustrated when trying to communicate personal needs to the nurse. The nurse determines that which method for communication may be the easiest for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a tracheostomy client, a picture or word board (B) is easiest, allowing quick, clear communication without speech. Paper (A) requires literacy and dexterity. Family interpretation (C) is unreliable. Hand signals (D) need setup. B is correct. Rationale: Visual aids bypass vocal limitations, enhancing autonomy, a practical solution per speech therapy standards.
Question 4 of 5
What interventions should the nurse implement in caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) following a head injury? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For diabetes insipidus (DI) post-head injury, providing fluids (A) prevents dehydration from polyuria. Increasing urine specific gravity (B) contradicts DI's dilute urine. Erythromycin (C) is unrelated. Neurological changes (D) are monitored but secondary. A is correct. Rationale: Fluid replacement matches DI's excessive output, a primary intervention per endocrine care standards, maintaining hydration.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) of $97 \mathrm{mmHg}$ and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of $12 \mathrm{mmHg}$. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CPP = MAP - ICP; 97 - 12 = 85 mmHg (B). Other options (A, C, D) miscalculate. B is correct. Rationale: CPP measures brain perfusion; 85 mmHg is within normal (60-100 mmHg), critical for assessing adequacy post-injury, per neurocritical care formulas.