ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is taking furosemide is being taught by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. Therefore, recommending foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, can help maintain potassium levels within the normal range. Choices B, C, and D are not the best recommendations in this case as they are not particularly high in potassium.
Question 2 of 5
What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS) about strategies to reduce fatigue. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Rest as needed throughout the day.' Fatigue is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS), and adequate rest is essential to manage it effectively. Resting as needed helps conserve energy and prevent fatigue from worsening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Exercise to the point of exhaustion' is not recommended as it can lead to increased fatigue. 'Avoiding physical activity' entirely is not advisable as appropriate exercise can help maintain strength and energy levels. 'Exercising only once per week' may not be sufficient to combat fatigue and maintain overall well-being in clients with MS.
Question 4 of 5
What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Polyuria (choice A) is increased urination, which is not a typical finding in SIADH. Dehydration (choice B) is the loss of body fluids, which is opposite to the fluid retention seen in SIADH. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is elevated blood sugar levels and is not directly related to SIADH.
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