ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.
Question 2 of 9
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.
Question 4 of 9
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should empty your bladder before the procedure. This is important because a full bladder can obstruct the visualization of the fetus during amniocentesis. By emptying the bladder, the uterus is better positioned for the procedure, making it safer and more effective. Explanation: 1. A (You will lie on your right side during the procedure) is incorrect because the position during amniocentesis is typically on the back or slightly tilted to the left. 2. B (You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure) is incorrect as fasting is not required for amniocentesis. 3. D (The test is performed to determine gestational age) is incorrect as amniocentesis is used to detect genetic abnormalities, not gestational age.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). After an amniocentesis, the priority is monitoring FHR to assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of distress. This is crucial as the procedure carries a risk of causing fetal distress. Checking the client's temperature (A) is important but not the priority. Observing for uterine contractions (B) is important but not immediate post-amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is typically done in cases of Rh incompatibility and not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure.
Question 7 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
Question 9 of 9
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. This test is used to assess fetal lung maturity by determining the ratio of two substances present in amniotic fluid. An L/S ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates mature fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. A: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to screen for neural tube defects, not fetal lung maturity. C: Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage. D: Indirect Coombs' test is used to detect antibodies in maternal blood that may attack fetal red blood cells, not assess fetal lung maturity. In summary, the L/S ratio test is the most appropriate choice to assess fetal lung maturity during preterm labor, as it directly correlates with the development of the fetal lungs.