ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 2 of 5
A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor. In this scenario, at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa and active bleeding, the priority is to promote fetal lung maturity in case of premature delivery due to the risk of maternal hemorrhage. Indomethacin (B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and not indicated in this situation. Nifedipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used for preterm labor to delay contractions, not for placenta previa and active bleeding. Methylergonovine (D) is used for postpartum hemorrhage and not indicated in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.