ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peanut butter. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder where the body can't process phenylalanine found in protein foods. Peanut butter is high in protein and contains phenylalanine, so it should be eliminated from the client's diet. Potatoes, apple juice, and broccoli are low in protein and do not contain high levels of phenylalanine, so they do not need to be eliminated. It is crucial for the client to avoid foods high in phenylalanine to prevent the buildup of toxic levels in the body, which can lead to serious health issues.
Question 2 of 5
During the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following findings should a nurse recognize as an expected physiologic change?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual lordosis. During the third trimester, the growing uterus shifts the center of gravity forward, leading to an increased lumbar curvature known as lordosis. This change helps maintain balance and support the extra weight. Increased abdominal muscle tone (B) is not an expected finding as abdominal muscles tend to stretch and weaken during pregnancy. Posterior neck flexion (C) is not a common physiologic change during the third trimester. Decreased mobility of pelvic joints (D) is incorrect as hormonal changes during pregnancy actually increase flexibility in the pelvic joints to prepare for childbirth.
Question 3 of 5
A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Missed miscarriage. At 11 weeks gestation, the fetus has died but has not been expelled from the uterus. This is known as a missed miscarriage. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Incomplete miscarriage involves partial expulsion of the products of conception. C: Inevitable miscarriage indicates that the miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped. D: Complete miscarriage refers to the complete expulsion of all products of conception from the uterus.
Question 4 of 5
When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess risk of neural tube defects or chromosomal abnormalities. - It is a standard prenatal test regardless of specific medical conditions. - Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the indication for MSAFP screening in pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because chlamydia is commonly treated with a single dose of azithromycin to ensure complete eradication of the infection. This antibiotic is highly effective against chlamydia. Option B is incorrect because both partners need treatment regardless of symptoms. Option C is incorrect as sexual abstinence for 7 days is recommended post-treatment. Option D is incorrect as retesting should be done after 3 months, not 6 months.