ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation. Other Choices: A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention. B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection. D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.
Question 2 of 9
A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because continuing to take insulin during nausea and vomiting is crucial for maintaining blood glucose control in clients with diabetes. Nausea and vomiting can lead to decreased food intake, risking hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because fasting blood glucose levels should ideally be maintained between 60-90 mg/dL in pregnant clients with diabetes for optimal outcomes, not 100-120 mg/dL. Choice B is incorrect because engaging in moderate exercise when blood glucose is high (250 or higher) can exacerbate hyperglycemia rather than help in lowering blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding exercise when blood glucose exceeds 250 is not recommended. Exercise can help lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.
Question 3 of 9
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, left lower quadrant. In the left occipital anterior fetal position, the fetus's back is on the left side of the mother's abdomen. To assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart tones, the ultrasound transducer should be applied to the area closest to the fetal back, which is the left lower quadrant. Applying the transducer in this area allows for optimal detection of the fetal heart sounds. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not in proximity to the fetal back in the left occipital anterior position, leading to suboptimal detection of fetal heart tones.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three signs (Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and Ballottement) are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix, Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix, and Ballottement is a palpable rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers. These signs are indicative of pregnancy and are commonly observed in pregnant individuals. Therefore, the provider should expect to see all these findings in a pregnant client. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of these signs individually is a probable sign of pregnancy, and the question asks for all the expected findings, not just one or two of them.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.
Question 8 of 9
A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to administer opioid analgesic medication (Choice C). At 40 weeks gestation with contractions every 3-5 minutes, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station, the client is in active labor. Pain medication is appropriate to manage discomfort during labor. Opioid analgesics can help reduce pain intensity while still allowing the client to remain alert and participate in labor. Ice chips (Choice A and D) are not directly related to pain management in labor. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific concerns about bladder distention.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory distress. Hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn can lead to respiratory distress due to inadequate energy supply to respiratory muscles. Hypertonia (choice A) may indicate other issues such as hypocalcemia. Increased feeding (choice B) is not a typical clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia, as the newborn may have poor feeding due to low energy levels. Hyperthermia (choice C) is not directly related to hypoglycemia but may occur in response to infection or other causes. Thus, respiratory distress is the most indicative of hypoglycemia in this scenario.