ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.
Question 3 of 9
How can a healthcare provider prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post-operative patients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the above options are essential in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post-operative patients. Encouraging early ambulation helps prevent blood stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Administering anticoagulants can prevent blood clots from forming. Compression stockings promote blood flow, reducing the likelihood of clot formation. Each intervention plays a crucial role in DVT prevention, making the correct answer 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are not exclusive of each other but rather work synergistically to provide comprehensive prevention against DVT.
Question 4 of 9
What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach encourages the client to regain autonomy by engaging in self-care activities at their own pace. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but does not directly address the client's concern regarding fatigue and self-care. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) may hinder the client's independence by taking over tasks the client could potentially perform. Asking about family assistance (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client post-op with a chest tube. What should the nurse check for regularly?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing. Air leaks can compromise the function of the chest tube, leading to inadequate drainage and potentially causing complications for the client. Clamping the chest tube periodically is incorrect as it could lead to a buildup of fluid or air in the pleural space. Keeping the client in a prone position is not necessary for chest drainage, as the positioning may vary depending on the specific situation. Administering diuretics may not be directly related to monitoring the chest tube for proper function and is not a routine intervention for chest tube management post-op.
Question 7 of 9
Which is the correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This approach ensures stability and helps the client maintain balance while using the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side of the body to provide additional support. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may compromise stability. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step can lead to imbalance and falls.
Question 8 of 9
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with an acute asthma attack?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve breathing. Bronchodilators are the first-line treatment for asthma attacks as they help dilate the bronchioles, allowing for better airflow. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority when the patient is in distress. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position can help with breathing but is not the initial priority. Calling for assistance can be done after initiating the appropriate treatment.
Question 9 of 9
When caring for a client experiencing delirium, which of the following is essential?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing delirium, it is essential to identify the underlying causative condition or illness. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medication side effects, dehydration, or underlying health conditions. By identifying the root cause, appropriate treatment can be provided. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics (Choice A) may be considered in some cases but is not the primary essential step. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation (Choice C) can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications (Choice D) should only be done under medical supervision, as some medications may be necessary for the client's well-being.